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FAR Smart Matrix. Chapter 99 CAS. DOD Deviations. Skip to main content. Federal Acquisition Regulatory Council. Home Regulations FAR. My Favorites.

Far Parts. Part 1 - Federal Acquisition Regulations System. Subpart 1. Part 2 - Definitions of Words and Terms. Subpart 2. Subpart 3.

Part 4 - Administrative and Information Matters. Subpart 4. Part 5 - Publicizing Contract Actions. Subpart 5. Part 6 - Competition Requirements. Subpart 6. Part 7 - Acquisition Planning. Subpart 7. Part 8 - Required Sources of Supplies and Services. Drop-Down Menu. Tools and Equipment. Technical Data. Procedures, policies or instructions or information. Process Measures. Desired Outcome. Objective: The questions in this section address the responsibility and authority of the process.

They are designed to assist the inspector in determining if there is a clearly identifiable, qualified, and knowledgeable person who is responsible for the process, is answerable for the quality of the process, and has the authority to establish and modify the process. The person with the authority may or may not be the person with the responsibility. Review the appropriate organizational chart. Evaluate the qualifications and work experience of the management personnel identified in tasks 1 and 2.

Is there a clearly identified person who has authority to establish and modify the certificate holder's policies, procedures, instructions, and information for the Required Inspection Items RII process? No Change. Does the person with responsibility understand the controls, process measurements, and interfaces associated with the Required Inspection Items RII process? Does the person with authority understand the controls, process measurements, and interfaces associated with the Required Inspection Items RII process?

Assignment of responsibility. Assignment of authority. Does not understand procedures, policies or instructions and information. Does not understand controls. Does not understand process measurements. Does not understand interfaces. Span of control. Position vacant. Objective FAA oversight : To determine the effectiveness of the certificate holder s procedures in meeting the desired output of the process.

To determine if the certificate holder follows its procedures, controls, process measurements, and interfaces for the Required Inspection Items RII process.

Specific Instructions : To accomplish this EPI, the inspector will review aircraft maintenance records to discern if the completed maintenance performed was required to have an RII Inspection as identified by the certificate holder s manual. An individual that is properly certificated, trained, and qualified at the time of the inspection should accomplish the RII Inspection.

Ensure the individual performing the RII Inspection did not participate in the actual work being performed. Ensure designated RII Inspectors are under the control of the inspection department. Review the certificate holder s list of identified RII items for completeness. Related EPIs : 1. Tasks To meet this objective, the inspector must accomplish the following tasks: 1.

Questions To meet this objective, the inspector must answer the following questions: 1. Were the following Performance Measures met: 1.

Related Performance JTIs: 1. Check, at the air carrier maintenance facility, that the certificate holder prepared and kept a current chart or description of its organization that performs any required inspections in accordance with its design Sources: Check, at the air carrier maintenance facility, that the certificate holder prepared and kept a current list of persons with whom it has arranged for the performance of any of it's required inspections in accordance with its design Sources: Check, at the technical publications library, that a designation, by occupational title, of personnel authorized to perform each required inspection is in the manual in accordance with the certificate holders design Sources: Check, at the maintenance facility, that persons performing required inspections are appropriately certificated in accordance with the certificate holders design Sources: Within 30 days after the certificate holder receives such notice, it may file a petition to reconsider the notice with the responsible Flight Standards office.

The filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice pending a decision by the Administrator. However, if the Administrator finds that there is an emergency that requires immediate action in the interest of safety in air transportation, he may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay.

Compliance with this paragraph is required no later than March 12, Training equipment does not include FSTDs qualified under part 60 of this chapter. The documenting system must be readily available for review by each instructor, check airman or supervisor, prior to conducting training or checking with that equipment. This record must include the date of the correction. The satisfactory completion of the course of training must be certified by either the Administrator or a qualified check airman.

The training program must be separate from the air carrier training program required by this part. The observation check may be accomplished in part or in full in an airplane, in a flight simulator, or in a flight training device. This training and practice must be accomplished in a flight simulator or in a flight training device.

This training and practice must be accomplished in full or in part in a flight simulator or in a flight training device. Each crewmember must perform—. This firefighting drill is not required if the crewmember performs the PBE drill of paragraph c 1 i by combating an actual fire; and. Each crewmember must—. A Each type of emergency exit in the normal and emergency modes, including the actions and forces required in the deployment of the emergency evacuation slides;. C Each type of emergency oxygen system to include protective breathing equipment;.

D Donning, use, and inflation of individual flotation means, if applicable; and. A Removal from the airplane or training device and inflation of each type of life raft, if applicable;. Any crewmember who performs the PBE drill and the firefighting drill prescribed in paragraphs c 1 i and c 1 ii of this section after May 26, , is deemed to be in compliance with this regulation upon presentation of information or documentation, in a form and manner acceptable to the Executive Director, Flight Standards Service, showing that the appropriate drills have been accomplished.

Approved related aircraft differences training for flightcrew members may be included in initial, transition, upgrade and recurrent training for the base aircraft. B Escaping from severe weather situations, in case of inadvertent encounters, including low-altitude windshear, and. C Operating in or near thunderstorms including best penetrating altitudes , turbulent air including clear air turbulence , icing, hail, and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions;.

Within 36 calendar months preceding service as a pilot, each person must satisfactorily complete the extended envelope training described in paragraph b 5 of this section. For the recurrent training required in paragraph d of this section, each pilot qualified to serve as second in command or pilot in command in operations under this part on March 12, must complete the recurrent extended envelope training within 12 calendar months after March 12, Pilot in command, 10 hours; second in command, 6 hours; and.

Pilot in command, 15 hours; second in command, 7 hours. Pilot in command, 20 hours; second in command, 10 hours. This training and practice may be accomplished either inflight, in an airplane simulator, or in a training device. Flight engineers possessing a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument, category and class rating, or pilots already qualified as second in command and reverting to flight engineer, may complete the entire flight check in an approved airplane simulator.

For flightcrew members, CRM training or portions thereof may be accomplished during an approved simulator line operational flight training LOFT session. The preflight inspection may be conducted in an airplane, or by using an approved pictorial means that realistically portrays the location and detail or preflight inspection items and provides for the portrayal of abnormal conditions. Satisfactory completion of an approved line-oriented simulator training program may be substituted for the flight check.

The qualification requirements of this subpart also apply to each certificate holder that conducts commuter operations under part of this chapter with airplanes for which two pilots are required by the aircraft type certification rules of this chapter. Consolidation is the process by which a person through practice and practical experience increases proficiency in newly acquired knowledge and skills. Operating cycle is a complete flight segment consisting of a takeoff, climb, enroute portion, descent, and a landing.

No certificate holder may use any person nor may any person serve as a required crewmember on an airplane unless that person has satisfactorily completed, in a training program approved under subpart N of this part, initial ground and flight training for that type airplane and for the particular crewmember position, except as follows:.

The requirement in this paragraph expires on March 12, The request must include the following:. A Identification of aircraft operated by the certificate holder designated as related aircraft. B Hours of operating experience and number of operating cycles necessary based on review of the related aircraft, the operation, and the duty position.

C Consolidation hours necessary based on review of the related aircraft, the operation, and the duty position. However, in the case of an aircraft not previously used by the certificate holder in operations under this part, operating experience acquired in the aircraft during proving flights or ferry flights may be used to meet this requirement. During the time that a qualifying pilot in command is acquiring the operating experience in paragraphs c l i and ii of this section, a check pilot who is also serving as the pilot in command must occupy a pilot station.

However, in the case of a transitioning pilot in command the check pilot serving as pilot in command may occupy the observer's seat, if the transitioning pilot has made at least two takeoffs and landings in the type airplane used, and has satisfactorily demonstrated to the check pilot that he is qualified to perform the duties of a pilot in command of that type of airplane. Operating experience in both airplane groups must include at least 4 operating cycles at least 2 as the pilot flying the airplane.

However, operating experience is not required for a flight attendant who has previously acquired such experience on any large passenger carrying airplane of the same group, if the certificate holder shows that the flight attendant has received sufficient ground training for the airplane in which the flight attendant is to serve. Flight attendants receiving operating experience may not be assigned as a required crewmember. Flight attendants who have satisfactorily completed training time acquired in an approved training program conducted in a full-scale except for length cabin training device of the type airplane in which they are to serve may substitute this time for 50 percent of the hours required by this paragraph.

For those pilots who are employed as pilot in command in part operations on July 31, , compliance with the requirements of this paragraph a 3 is not required. However, for those pilots who are employed as second in command in part operations on July 31, , compliance with the type rating requirement in paragraph b of this section is not required until January 1, The Administrator may, upon application by the certificate holder, authorize deviations from the requirements of this paragraph b by an appropriate amendment to the operations specifications in any of the following circumstances:.

In addition, any person who fails to make the three required takeoffs and landings within any consecutive day period must reestablish recency of experience as provided in paragraph b of this section. When a visual simulator is used, the requirements of paragraph c of this section must be met. The landings must be made in weather minimums that are not less than those contained in the certificate holder's operations specifications for Category I Operations, and must be made within 45 days following completion of simulator training.

B In addition, within the preceding 6 calendar months, either a proficiency check or the approved simulator course of training. A A proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in the aircraft type in which the person is to serve and,.

In addition to repeating the maneuvers failed, the person giving the proficiency check may require the pilot being checked to repeat any other maneuvers he finds are necessary to determine the pilot's proficiency. If the pilot being checked is unable to demonstrate satisfactory performance to the person conducting the check, the certificate holder may not use him nor may he serve in operations under this part until he has satisfactorily completed a proficiency check.

However, the entire proficiency check other than the initial second-in-command proficiency check required by this section may be conducted in an approved visual simulator if the pilot being checked accomplishes at least two landings in the appropriate airplane during a line check or other check conducted by a pilot check airman a pilot-in-command may observe and certify the satisfactory accomplishment of these landings by a second-in-command.

A For recurrent proficiency checks, the frequency of the related aircraft proficiency check, the maneuvers and procedures to be included in the related aircraft proficiency check, and the level of FSTD to be used for each maneuver and procedure. B For qualification proficiency checks, the maneuvers and procedures to be included in the related aircraft proficiency check and the level of FSTD to be used for each maneuver and procedure.

A person may serve as an aircraft dispatcher without meeting the requirement of this paragraph a for 90 days after initial introduction of the airplane into operations under this part.

This observation shall be made from the flight deck or, for airplanes without an observer seat on the flight deck, from a forward passenger seat with headset or speaker. However, if the requirement of paragraph a is met by the use of a simulator, no reduction in hours is permitted. However, a dispatcher who is qualified to dispatch airplanes through one segment of an operation may dispatch airplanes through other segments of the operation after coordinating with dispatchers who are qualified to dispatch airplanes through those other segments.

He or she shall remain on duty until each airplane dispatched by him or her has completed its flight, or has gone beyond his or her jurisdiction, or until he or she is relieved by another qualified dispatcher. Calendar day means the period of elapsed time, using Coordinated Universal Time or local time, that begins at midnight and ends 24 hours later at the next midnight. Duty period means the period of elapsed time between reporting for an assignment involving flight time and release from that assignment by the certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations.

The time is calculated using either Coordinated Universal Time or local time to reflect the total elapsed time. Flight attendant means an individual, other than a flight crewmember, who is assigned by a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations, in accordance with the required minimum crew complement under the certificate holder's operations specifications or in addition to that minimum complement, to duty in an aircraft during flight time and whose duties include but are not necessarily limited to cabin-safety-related responsibilities.

Rest period means the period free of all restraint or duty for a certificate holder conducting domestic, flag, or supplemental operations and free of all responsibility for work or duty should the occasion arise. This rest period must occur between the completion of the scheduled duty period and the commencement of the subsequent duty period. The filing of a petition to reconsider stays the notice, pending decision by the Administrator.

However, if the Administrator finds that an emergency requires immediate action in the interest of safety, the Administrator may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay.

This subpart prescribes flight time limitations and rest requirements for domestic all-cargo operations, except that:. A certificate holder may choose to apply part to its—.

Government agency,. This subpart prescribes flight time limitations and rest requirements for flag all-cargo operations, except that:.

This rest period must be at least twice the number of hours flown since the preceding rest period, but not less than eight hours. The certificate holder shall relieve that pilot of all duty with it during that rest period. In any case, he must be given at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during any seven consecutive days.

It shall also provide adequate sleeping quarters on the airplane whenever a pilot is scheduled to fly more than 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours. During the rest period required by this paragraph, the air carrier may not require him to perform any duty for it. If the required rest period is more than seven days, that part of the rest period in excess of seven days may be given at any time before the pilot is again scheduled for flight duty on any route.

No pilot that is employed as a pilot by a certificate holder conducting flag operations may do any other commercial flying if that commercial flying plus his flying in air transportation will exceed any flight time limitation in this part.

Time spent in deadhead transportation to or from duty assignment is not considered to be a part of a rest period. This subpart prescribes flight time limitations and rest requirements for supplemental all-cargo operations, except that:. The certificate holder conducting supplemental operations shall relieve that pilot of all duty with it during that rest period. No airman may be aloft as a flight crewmember more than 1, hours in any calendar-month period.

No airman who is employed by a certificate holder conducting supplemental operations may do any other commercial flying, if that commercial flying plus his flying in operations under this part will exceed any flight time limitation in this part.

Time spent by an airman in deadhead transportation to or from a duty assignment is not considered to be part of any rest period. In any case, he must be relieved of all duty for at least 24 consecutive hours during any seven consecutive days. It shall also provide adequate sleeping quarters on the airplane whenever an airman is scheduled to be aloft as a flight crewmember for more than 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.

Such a crewmember is considered to be on continuous duty from the time he reports for duty until the time he is released from duty for a rest period of at least 10 hours on the ground. If a flight crewmember is on continuous duty for more than 24 hours whether scheduled or not duty any scheduled duty period, he must be given at least 16 hours for rest on the ground after completing the last flight scheduled for that scheduled duty period before being assigned any further flight duty.

If the required rest period is more than seven days, that part of the rest period that is more than seven days may be given at any time before the pilot is again scheduled for flight duty. This subpart prescribes requirements for flight operations applicable to all certificate holders, except where otherwise specified. The director of operations may delegate the functions for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a flight but he may not delegate the responsibility for those functions.

The director of operations is responsible for assuring that each flight is monitored with respect to at least the following:. The pilot in command has full control and authority in the operation of the aircraft, without limitation, over other crewmembers and their duties during flight time, whether or not he holds valid certificates authorizing him to perform the duties of those crewmembers.

Certificate holders conducting operations under this part must comply with the applicable security requirements in 49 CFR chapter XII. Each certificate holder shall notify its appropriate operations personnel of each change in equipment and operating procedures, including each known change in the use of navigation aids, airports, air traffic control procedures and regulations, local airport traffic control rules, and known hazards to flight, including icing and other potentially hazardous meteorological conditions and irregularities in ground and navigation facilities.

In establishing flight operations schedules, each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall allow enough time for the proper servicing of aircraft at intermediate stops, and shall consider the prevailing winds en route and the cruising speed of the type of aircraft used.

This cruising speed may not be more than that resulting from the specified cruising output of the engines. Duties such as company required calls made for such nonsafety related purposes as ordering galley supplies and confirming passenger connections, announcements made to passengers promoting the air carrier or pointing out sights of interest, and filling out company payroll and related records are not required for the safe operation of the aircraft.

Activities such as eating meals, engaging in nonessential conversations within the cockpit and nonessential communications between the cabin and cockpit crews, and reading publications not related to the proper conduct of the flight are not required for the safe operation of the aircraft.

Compliance with this section is required no later than March 12, No pilot in command may allow any person to manipulate the controls of an aircraft during flight nor may any person manipulate the controls during flight unless that person is—. B A part certificate holder and whose duties are such that admission to the flightdeck is necessary or advantageous for safe operation; or.

C An aeronautical enterprise certificated by the Administrator and whose duties are such that admission to the flightdeck is necessary or advantageous for safe operation. Paragraph a 2 of this section does not limit the emergency authority of the pilot in command to exclude any person from the flightdeck in the interests of safety. However, the certificate holder may not admit employees of traffic, sales, or other departments that are not directly related to flight operations, unless they are eligible under paragraph a 4 of this section.

Whenever an Agent of the Secret Service who is assigned the duty of protecting a person aboard an aircraft operated by a certificate holder considers it necessary in the performance of his duty to ride on the flight deck of the aircraft, he must, upon request and presentation of his Secret Service credentials to the pilot in command of the aircraft, be admitted to the flight deck and permitted to occupy an observer seat thereon.

When a certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations knows of conditions, including airport and runway conditions, that are a hazard to safe operations, it shall restrict or suspend operations until those conditions are corrected. When a certificate holder conducting supplemental operations or pilot in command knows of conditions, including airport and runway conditions, that are a hazard to safe operations, the certificate holder or pilot in command, as the case may be, shall restrict or suspend operations until those conditions are corrected.

No pilot may operate an airplane in scheduled air transportation—. In such a case he may deviate from prescribed operations procedures and methods, weather minimums, and this chapter, to the extent required in the interests of safety.

If the aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot, he shall declare an emergency and take any action that he considers necessary under the circumstances.

The person declaring the emergency shall send a written report of any deviation through the certificate holder's operations manager, to the Administrator. A dispatcher shall send his report within 10 days after the date of the emergency, and a pilot in command shall send his report within 10 days after returning to his home base. In such a case, he may deviate from prescribed operations, procedures and methods, weather minimums, and this chapter, to the extent required in the interests of safety.

If they cannot communicate with the pilot, they shall declare an emergency and take any action that they consider necessary under the circumstances.

The person declaring the emergency shall send a written report of any deviation, through the certificate holder's director of operations, to the Administrator within 10 days after the flight is completed or, in the case of operations outside the United States, upon return to the home base.

The pilot in command shall ensure that all mechanical irregularities occurring during flight time are entered in the maintenance log of the airplane at the end of that flight time. Before each flight the pilot in command shall ascertain the status of each irregularity entered in the log at the end of the preceding flight.

The director of operations shall, within 10 days after the pilot returns to his or her home base, send a copy of this report with the director of operation's comments to the responsible Flight Standards office.

No person may make an instrument approach at an airport except in accordance with IFR weather minimums and instrument approach procedures set forth in the certificate holder's operations specifications.

Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions smoking is prohibited including, but not limited to, any applicable requirements of part of this title. This briefing shall include a statement that the Federal Aviation Regulations require passenger compliance with the lighted passenger information signs, posted placards, areas designated for safety purposes as no smoking areas, and crewmember instructions with regard to these items.

The briefing shall also include a statement that Federal law prohibits tampering with, disabling, or destroying any smoke detector in an airplane lavatory; smoking in lavatories; and, when applicable, smoking in passenger compartments.

Each passenger shall be briefed on when, where, and under what conditions the safety belt must be fastened about that passenger. This briefing shall include a statement that the Federal Aviation Regulations require passenger compliance with lighted passenger information signs and crewmember instructions concerning the use of safety belts.

A The placement of seat backs in an upright position before takeoff and landing. C If the flight involves operations above 12, MSL, the normal and emergency use of oxygen. In the briefing the required crewmember shall—. Each card must contain information pertinent only to the type and model of airplane used for that flight, including—. Beginning August 22, , a certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry and operate a portable oxygen concentrator when the conditions in paragraphs b and e of this section are satisfied.

This paragraph does not apply to the carriage of oxygen in an airplane in which the only passengers carried are persons who may have a medical need for oxygen during flight, no more than one relative or other interested person for each of those persons, and medical attendants. A passenger may carry or operate a portable oxygen concentrator for personal use on board an aircraft and a certificate holder may allow a passenger to carry or operate a portable oxygen concentrator on board an aircraft operated under this part during all phases of flight if the portable oxygen concentrator satisfies all of the requirements in this paragraph e :.

Portable oxygen concentrators that satisfy the acceptance criteria identified in paragraph e 1 of this section may be carried or operated by a passenger on an aircraft provided the aircraft operator ensures that all of the conditions in this paragraph e 2 are satisfied:. No person operating a portable oxygen concentrator is permitted to occupy an exit seat.

During movement on the surface, takeoff and landing, the device must be stowed under the seat in front of the user, or in another approved stowage location so that it does not block the aisle way or the entryway to the row. If the device is to be operated by the user, it must be operated only at a seat location that does not restrict any passenger's access to, or use of, any required emergency or regular exit, or the aisle s in the passenger compartment.

The certificate holder must provide and use means to prevent each item of galley equipment and each serving cart, when not in use, and each item of crew baggage, which is carried in a passenger or crew compartment from becoming a hazard by shifting under the appropriate load factors corresponding to the emergency landing conditions under which the airplane was type certificated.

For this purpose, the amount of ozone below flight level is considered to be zero. The analysis or tests must show either of the following:. For purpose of this section—. No person may use an autopilot for takeoff or initial climb below the higher of feet or an altitude that is no lower than twice the altitude loss specified in the Airplane Flight Manual AFM , except as follows—. No person may use an autopilot enroute, including climb and descent, below the following—.

No person may use an autopilot at an altitude lower than 50 feet below the DA H or MDA for the instrument procedure being flown, except as follows—. C The autopilot is coupled and receiving both lateral and vertical path references;. B The autopilot is coupled and receiving both lateral and vertical path references; or.

No person may engage an autopilot during a go-around or missed approach below the minimum engagement altitude specified for takeoff and initial climb in paragraph b in this section. Performing a go-around or missed approach with an engaged autopilot must not adversely affect safe obstacle clearance.

Notwithstanding paragraph d of this section, autopilot minimum use altitudes do not apply to autopilot operations when an approved automatic landing system mode is being used for landing. Automatic landing systems must be authorized in an operations specification issued to the operator. No person may assault, threaten, intimidate, or interfere with a crewmember in the performance of the crewmember's duties aboard an aircraft being operated under this part.

The location and equipment of the seat, with respect to its suitability for use in conducting en route inspections, is determined by the Administrator. The seat must be located so that the occupant is not in any position to interfere with the flight crewmembers performing their duties. From the time the airplane moves in order to initiate a flight segment through the end of that flight segment, no person may unlock or open the flightdeck door unless:.

For the purpose of this section—. B Each seat in a row of seats through which passengers would have to pass to gain access to an exit, from the first seat inboard of the exit to the first aisle inboard of the exit. A certificate holder shall not require the passenger to disclose his or her reason for needing reseating.

Approval will be based solely upon the safety aspects of the certificate holder's procedures. However, if the Administrator finds that there is an emergency that requires immediate action in the interest of safety in air commerce, he may, upon a statement of the reasons, require a change effective without stay.

In addition, each aisle seat shall be fitted with a means to prevent articles of baggage stowed under it from sliding sideward into the aisle under crash impacts severe enough to induce the ultimate inertia forces specified in the emergency landing condition regulations under which the airplane was type certificated.

Further, after June 9, for Class I airports and after December 9, for Class II, III, and IV airports, when an air carrier and a pilot being used by the air carrier are required to operate at an airport certificated under part of this chapter, the air carrier and the pilot may only operate at that airport if the airport is classified under part to serve the type airplane to be operated and the type of operation to be conducted.

Government that is not certificated under part of this chapter, only if that airport meets the equivalent—. If the area to be used for takeoff or landing is marked by flare pots or lanterns, their use must be authorized by the Administrator. Government that is not certificated under part of this chapter only if that airport meets the equivalent—. Domestic type operation means any domestic operation conducted with—.

Flag type operation means any flag operation conducted with—. Supplemental type operation means any supplemental operation except an all-cargo operation conducted with an airplane designed for at least 31 passenger seats as determined by the aircraft type certificate issued by a competent civil aviation authority at any land airport in any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States.

Each air carrier that provides—in an aircraft e. That statutory provision contains stand-alone requirements for such air carriers and special exceptions for operations in Alaska and outside the United States.

Certain operations by air carriers that conduct public charter operations under 14 CFR part are covered by the statutory requirements to operate to and from part airports. See 49 U. This subpart prescribes dispatching rules for domestic and flag operations and flight release rules for supplemental operations.

Except when an airplane lands at an intermediate airport specified in the original dispatch release and remains there for not more than one hour, no person may start a flight unless an aircraft dispatcher specifically authorizes that flight. The pilot in command may sign the flight release only when he and the person authorized by the operator to exercise operational control believe that the flight can be made with safety.

No aircraft dispatcher may release a flight unless he is thoroughly familiar with reported and forecast weather conditions on the route to be flown. No pilot in command may begin a flight unless he is thoroughly familiar with reported and forecast weather conditions on the route to be flown.

No person may dispatch or release an aircraft for VFR operation unless the ceiling and visibility en route, as indicated by available weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, are and will remain at or above applicable VFR minimums until the aircraft arrives at the airport or airports specified in the dispatch or flight release.

Not more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. Not more than two hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate airport are marginal at least one additional alternate must be designated. However, no alternate airport is required if for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate—. The flight crew shall have direct access at all times prior to flight to all of the information contained in the approved Minimum Equipment List through printed or other means approved by the Administrator in the certificate holders operations specifications.

An approved Minimum Equipment List, as authorized by the operations specifications, constitutes an approved change to the type design without requiring recertification. Takeoffs with frost under the wing in the area of the fuel tanks may be authorized by the Administrator. The holdover times must be supported by data acceptable to the Administrator.

The certificate holder's program must include procedures for flight crewmembers to increase or decrease the determined holdover time in changing conditions. The program must provide that takeoff after exceeding any maximum holdover time in the certificate holder's holdover timetable is permitted only when at least one of the following conditions exists:.

A pretakeoff check is a check of the aircraft's wings or representative aircraft surfaces for frost, ice, or snow within the aircraft's holdover time. A pretakeoff contamination check is a check to make sure the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces, as defined in the certificate holder's program, are free of frost, ice, and snow.

It must be conducted within five minutes prior to beginning take off.